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craigwatson – 13/06/2013 16:09 GMT

AOTG – BA and AA share revenue on those routes, so it wont make an iota of difference if AA takes business from BA.

I’d be really interested to know how that works.

For example, I am flying with AA from EDI – LHR – JFK – AUS, then I do AUS – JFK followed by JFK – GRU then GRU – JFK – LHR – EDI. The only legs I use any BA metal is from EDI – LHR return. So, of course, I would expect there would be an ‘internal’ charge from BA to AA for that flight.

However, if I were to book the same flights, but from LHR directly on AA’s website, am I to understand that British Airways get a share of that sale? Even though there is no BA interaction at all?

I know they code-share at the moment, as BA did not so long ago with Qantas, until Qantas found a better partner, likewise I would imagine if AA see a significant upturn in their transatlantic flights that it wouldn’t take their management long to change the arrangement they currently have.


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